Praise be to Allaah.


Mut’ah marriage means that a man marries a woman – either Muslim or from the people of the Book – and specifies how long the marriage will last, for example five days, or two months, or half a year, or many years. The beginning and end of the marriage are specified, and he pays her a small mahr (dowry), and after the specified time is over, the woman exits the marriage. This kind of marriage was permitted during the year of the Conquest of Makkah for three days, then it was disallowed and prohibited until the Day of Resurrection. This was reported by Muslim (1406).

The wife is the one with whom one stays on a long-term basis, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“… and live with them honourably …” [al-Nisaa’ 4:19], but in the case of mut’ah a man does not live with the woman for long.

The wife is the one who is called a wife in sharee’ah, with whom the relationship is long-lasting. She is mentioned in the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame” [al-Mu’minoon 23:6]

The wife is the one who inherits from the husband, or from whom the husband inherits, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“In that which your wives leave, your share is a half if they have no child…” [al-Nisaa’ 4:12]. But the woman in a mut’ah marriage does not inherit, because she is not a wife, since she spends such a short time with the man.

On these grounds, Mut’ah marriage is considered to be zinaa (adultery or fornication), even if both parties consent to it, and even if it lasts for a long time, and even if the man pays the woman a mahr. There is nothing that has been reported in sharee’ah that shows that it may be permitted, apart from the brief period when it was allowed during the year of the conquest of Makkah. That was because at that time there were so many people who has newly embraced Islam and there was the fear that they might become apostates, because they had been used to committing zinaa during the Jaahiliyyah. So this kind of marriage was permitted for them for three days, then it was made haraam until the Day of Resurrection, as was narrated by Muslim, 1406.

It was narrated from ‘Ali (may Allaah be pleased with him) that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) forbade mut’ah marriage and the meat of domestic donkeys at the time of Khaybar. According to another report, he forbade mut’ah marriage at the time of Khaybar and he forbade the meat of tame donkeys.


Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 3979; Muslim, 1407.

The APOSTLE OF ALLAH (PEACE_BE_UPON_HIM) PROHIBITED TEMPORARY MARRIAGE WITH WOMEN.

Muslim, Book 008, Number 3251:

How did mut’a come into Islam?

Like many innovations unfavorable to women, it can be traced directly to Judaism!


In the Old Testament, seduction of a virgin not yet engaged to be married, was not a crime, but merely a BUSINESS TRANSACTION:

"16 If a man seduces a virgin who is not engaged, he must pay the bride price for her and marry her. 17 But if her father refuses to let him marry her, he must pay the father a sum of money equal to the bride price for a virgin."

Exodus 22 (Today’s English Version).

Mut’a, similarly, degrades marriage to a business arrangement. This "Israeeleeat" doctrine has no place in Islam.

What these anti-Islamics don't know is that Muta originally came from their own Bible.

the following Biblical verses clearly prove this:

Exodus 22:16-17

16 If a man seduces a virgin who is not pledged to be married and sleeps with her, he must pay the bride-price, and she shall be his wife.

17 If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he must still pay the bride-price for virgins.

There is no doubt that these verses allow for muta between the man and even a virgin. Not only that, but the New Testament doesn't even nullify them.

While it is true that Jesus prohibited divorce between two spouses except for "marital unfaithfulness", but he clearly did allow polygamy in the polygamist society that he lived in through his "1 groom and his 10 virgin brides" parable.

A Christian man can still sleep with a woman and pay her the "bride-price." She would become his wife only and only if her father approves it. After that they certainly can't divorce except for "marital unfaithfulness" from either one. But the point is, according to Exodus 22:16-17, he can still take her to bed and not be violating anything. And if a woman is divorced, and he seduces her for muta, then her father doesn't even have to be involved. Not only that, but in the OT days, divorce was allowed between the two spouses. Again as I mentioned above:

Jeremiah 3:1

If a man divorces a woman and she marries someone else, he is not to take her back again, for that would surely corrupt the land. But you have prostituted yourself with many lovers, says the LORD. Yet I am still calling you to come back to me.